1. On ordinary debts, if a reasonable offer has been made and rejected and the creditor is threatening Court action, we do as Ariadne does - say action will be defended as to costs. This generally puts them off going to Court. I've a vague memory (it was a long while ago) that one did go to Court and the judge decided they had to pay their own costs.
2. I've no experience of DWP overpayment cases going to Court. I've always assumed they would have to go for a CCJ in the normal way. Am I right is thinking from Ariadne's post that that is not so - in other words they are assumed to already have the judgement and can go straight to enforcement?
3. In this particular case the client presumably has no assets to protect, large debts and a minus disposable income. Has he considered benakruptcy? Obviously, the fraud debts (DWP/HB/CTB) would not be covered but he could get rid of the others if they are still substantial.
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