Yes. Er, at least in theory....
I assume by "no tenancy agreement", you mean WRITTEN tenancy agreement.
In law, it is sufficient for there only to be a verbal agreement for there to be an enforceable tenancy. Obviously, if there is no tenancy agreement, written or verbal, there can be no agreement.
However, the issue is about the quality of evidence. In my experience (20 yrs or so), I can only recall one case ever where a claim for HB was processed without at least a letter from the landlord to verify the rent. Without any substantive evidence, most LAs will be highly suspicious about whether or not there is a genuine liability.
The issue is the same in most other areas of law - a verbal contract is normally enough (there are exceptions), but if one party later disagrees that of the terms were what they agreed to, how can it be proven?
Out of curiousity, do you have any more information? It's possible it may affect the advice / info of others.
Regards
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