Maybe I've misunderstood the circs. So, perhaps, the best way to look at it is by way of example.
Claim made on Monday 18th Aug 2008. Normally, HB/CTB will then commence from 25th Aug 2008.
So what does HBR 64(1) do? In effect, the first date of "would-have-been" entitled has to be identifed. If the first day is, in any case, 18th Aug 2008, HB can only start from the following Monday (barring the exceptions mentioned previously). In other words, barring exceptions, HB/CTB should start from the first Monday after the "would-have-been" entitled date.
In order for HB/CTB to be awarded from 18th Aug, the "entitlement" would have to be present from 17th Aug (or earlier).
Does this clarify, or, erm, has it caused further confusion?
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